Alright, so I know right off the bat, this may hit a nerve with some people, but my intention is simply to generate a lively discussion here.
So, without further ado, we know that the doctrine of election is unconditional for mankind (God elects those whom He wills)--but, doesn't that sound kinda unfair to those who might actually be the elect, to know that there are certain people that penultimately are going to heaven, and that some just aren't? It kinda raises the question of free will, and how limited it really is with such a doctrine. In a sense, it also raises the question of, "Could I have possibly rejected God's gift of salvation when it was offered to me?"
Not to say that the Bible has any contradictions, but, we all know that God desires that all men to be saved, and to come to the knowledge of the Truth (I Timothy 2:4), but at the same time, Romans 8:29-30 clearly states:
"For whom He did foreknow, He also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of His Son, that He might be the first born amongst many brethren. Moreover, whom He did predestinate, them He also called; and whom He called, them He also justified; and whom He justified, them He also glorified."
and II Thessalonians 2:13 also states:
"But we are bound to give thanks always to God for you, brethren, beloved of the Lord, because God had from the beginning chosen you to salvation, through sanctification, of the Spirit, and belief to the Truth."
That said, Paul's clearly implying that there are specific few who will be saved. Now we know this is true because there will be those who'll reject the gift of salvation--but, the key thing here is that He had already predestinated certain individuals before the foundation of the world ("For whom He did foreknow"), and therefore, if someone were to be offered the gift of salvation, and they weren't predestined to be saved, then they would not be saved?
However, Exodus 33:19 strikes me as somewhat unjust;
"I will make all my goodness pass before you, and I will proclaim the Name of the Lord before you; and I will be gracious to whom I will be gracious, and will show mercy on whom I will show mercy."
At the same time time, God commands all men everywhere to repent (Acts 17:30). I hate to say this, but I really don't understand this, and it appears to be a contradiction. I'm not say it is a contradiction, I'm just saying it appears to be, simply because I don't understand it (Which is obviously why I've made this a discussion). I'm not doubting God's sovereignty here, of course He knows who will be saved and who won't, but the word "predestinated" kinda confuses me. It seems unjust for Jesus to tell us to preach the Gospel to the whole world (Mark 16:15), and then at the same time, He'll only predestinate those whom He already elected.
Basically, is the call for salvation really for all, or only to the elect? Or, are the elect those who accept the gift of salvation? In other words, did God look from eternity and foresaw who would call upon Jesus and be saved, and that those were the ones He was refering to when speaking to the elect (At the same time, not to imply that it's man's free will that saves him, it's obviously still Jesus)? Better yet, when God refers to the those whom He elects and predestinates, is speaking from a divine perspective which we cannot understand, or is it actually from a human perspective, one which we should be able to understand and see it as black and white (Which is why it seems unjust)?